Arithmetic Word Problems for SBI PO — Complete Strategy Guide

intermediate 22 min read

Concept

Arithmetic word problems are the backbone of SBI PO's quantitative aptitude section. The exam doesn't test your ability to recall formulas in isolation — it tests whether you can read a messy real-world scenario, extract the mathematical structure underneath, and solve it before time bleeds away.

The core skill is translation. Every word problem is a sentence written in English that encodes an equation or a set of equations. "A and B together finish work in 12 days" means 1/a + 1/b = 1/12. "He marks up by 40%" means MP = 1.4 × CP. The moment you write that equation, the problem is 60% done.

Here is the mental model that separates fast solvers from slow ones: think in rates and multipliers, not amounts. Instead of tracking rupees and percentages separately, compress them. A 40% markup followed by a 10% discount is not calculated step-by-step — it is 1.4 × 0.9 = 1.26 in one line. A pipe filling at 1/12 of a tank per hour and a leak draining at 1/60 per hour net out to 1/12 - 1/60 = 4/60 = 1/15 per hour. Rates add and subtract cleanly.

Think of it like mixing currents in a wire. If two currents flow in opposite directions on the same path, the net current is the difference. Pipes, work-rates, and speeds all behave identically once you frame them as rates.

Arithmetic word problems on SBI PO cluster into a handful of recurring structures:

Master these seven families and you have covered the vast majority of what SBI PO throws at you.


Deep Dive

Profit, Loss, Discount — The Multiplier Chain

Every CP-MP-SP problem is a chain of multiplications. Memorise these compressed forms:

Look — successive discounts are not additive. A 10% + 15% discount is not 25%. It is 0.9 × 0.85 = 0.765, i.e., 23.5% effective discount. Confusing this is one of the most common wrong answers in SBI PO Prelims.

For the "find CP from SP with markup + two discounts" pattern: write SP as CP × (markup factor) × (discount1 factor) × (discount2 factor) and solve for CP directly. No working backwards step-by-step required.

Simple vs Compound Interest

SI is clean: SI = PRT/100. CI involves P(1 + R/100)^n - P. The key structural insight: the interest earned in the 3rd year of CI equals the amount at the end of 2 years multiplied by the rate. This is because each year's interest is earned on that year's principal, which already includes prior interest.

So if you are given amounts at year 2 and year 3, the rate is just: R = (A3 - A2) / A2 × 100

No need to set up a full compound interest equation. The difference between consecutive CI amounts directly gives you the rate.

Work and Time — The LCM Method

The textbook approach (add the fractions 1/a + 1/b) is fine, but the LCM method is faster for three-person problems:

  1. Find LCM of all given time values.
  2. Assign that LCM as the total units of work.
  3. Calculate each pair's combined rate in units/day.
  4. Sum and subtract as needed.

For the "A+B, B+C, C+A" structure specifically: add all three equations to get 2(A+B+C) rate, halve it to get (A+B+C) rate, then subtract each pair to isolate individuals.

Alligation — The Cross Difference

Alligation is the fastest tool for mixture problems where you know two "strengths" and want a target strength. Draw the cross:

Strength 1 (S1)       Strength 2 (S2)
         \           /
          Mean (M)
         /           \
    (S2 - M)     (M - S1)

The ratio of quantities is (S2 - M) : (M - S1). This works for profit percentages, concentrations, prices — anything that behaves as a weighted average.

Averages — The Sum Trick

Average problems often look complex but reduce to one equation: new sum = new average × new count. When a new member is added or removed, compute the change in total sum, which equals the difference between the new member's value and the old average, multiplied by... no, simpler: new member's value = (new average × new count) - (old average × old count).

Pipes and Cisterns

Structurally identical to work-time. Filling pipes have positive rates, leaks have negative rates. Net rate = sum of all filling rates minus sum of all leaking rates. Time to fill = 1 / net rate.

One trap: the problem says the pipe fills in 12 hours "alone", but asks for the time WITH the leak. The leak's rate is found by subtraction: leak rate = fill rate alone - fill rate with leak.

Ratio with Variable Change

Problems like "add x liters of water to change ratio from A:B to C:D" always have the same structure: the quantity of the component you are NOT adding stays fixed. Set up one equation with one unknown. Cross-multiply, solve. Done.


Memory Tricks & Shortcuts

patternCI Rate from Consecutive Amounts

When CI amounts are given for year n and year n+1, the rate is simply the ratio of the increment to the earlier amount. If amount grows from ₹4840 to ₹5324, rate = (5324 - 4840)/4840 × 100 = 484/4840 × 100 = 10%. Standard method: set up P(1+r/100)^n equations and divide — 4 steps. This pattern: 1 step. Time saving: roughly 50 seconds vs 10 seconds.

patternSuccessive Discounts — One Multiplication

For two successive discounts d1 and d2, final price factor = (1 - d1/100)(1 - d2/100). For 10% + 15%: 0.9 × 0.85 = 0.765. Effective discount = 23.5%. Standard method: apply first discount, take new price, apply second discount — 6 arithmetic operations. This method: 1 multiplication. Saves 30+ seconds on chain-discount problems.

patternThree-Person Work — Add All, Then Subtract

For (A+B) = 1/p, (B+C) = 1/q, (C+A) = 1/r: sum all three to get 2(A+B+C) = 1/p + 1/q + 1/r. Halve it to get (A+B+C). Then A alone = (A+B+C) - (B+C) = half-sum minus 1/q. This is 3 fraction additions and 1 subtraction — standard algebraic elimination of three variables takes 8-10 steps. This method: 4 steps.

patternAlligation Cross for Mixture Ratios

Draw the alligation cross instead of writing algebra. Place S1 top-left, S2 top-right, mean in center. Cross-differences give the ratio. For 8% and 18% profit with 14% mean: cross differences are (18-14)=4 and (14-8)=6. Ratio = 4:6 = 2:3. Quantity at 18% = 3/5 × 1000 = 600 kg. Standard algebra (two equations, two unknowns): 5 steps. Alligation cross: 2 steps.

estimationAverage Inclusion — Direct Sum Difference

When one person is added to a group and the average changes, the new person's value = new total sum - old total sum. New sum = new average × new count. Old sum = old average × old count. For the teacher problem: 21×19 - 20×18 = 399 - 360 = 39. No equation needed, no variable introduced. Standard method: set up equation with unknown x — 3 steps. Direct difference: 2 multiplications and a subtraction, under 15 seconds.


Fast-Solving Framework

In the exam hall, follow this decision tree for every arithmetic word problem:

Step 1 — Identify the family. Read the first two lines. Does it mention CP/MP/SP, profit, discount? Go to multiplier chain. Does it say "invested at interest"? Go to SI/CI. Does it say "complete work", "fill tank", "pipe"? Go to rate addition.

Step 2 — Write the compressed form immediately. Don't narrate, don't paraphrase. Write the equation in multiplier or rate form in under 20 seconds.

Step 3 — Check if alligation applies. Any problem where two things mix to produce a known average — profits, concentrations, prices — use the alligation cross. It halves your work time.

Step 4 — Plug answer options if algebra feels slow. On SBI PO, four options are given. For problems like "find CP given SP", plug the options directly into the formula. Two wrong options will fail immediately. This is not guessing — it is structured verification that often takes under 30 seconds.

Step 5 — Sanity-check units. If the question asks for "days", your answer should not be a fraction unless the options show fractions. If something feels off in 3 seconds of checking, reread the question — the most common error is misreading "A alone" versus "A and B together".


Solved PYQs

Why this question: Three-person work problems are a recurring SBI PO pattern. The key is recognising the "add all three, halve, subtract" structure before you start.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days. B and C together can do the same work in 15 days. C and A together can do it in 20 days. In how many days can A alone complete the work?
A और B मिलकर एक काम को 12 दिनों में पूरा कर सकते हैं। B और C मिलकर उसी काम को 15 दिनों में कर सकते हैं। C और A मिलकर उसे 20 दिनों में कर सकते हैं। A अकेले उस काम को कितने दिनों में पूरा कर सकता है?
  1. 20 days
  2. 24 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 36 days
  1. 20 दिन
  2. 24 दिन
  3. 30 दिन
  4. 36 दिन
Solutionसमाधान
Let A, B, C complete the work in a, b, c days respectively. Given: 1/a + 1/b = 1/12, 1/b + 1/c = 1/15, 1/c + 1/a = 1/20. Adding all equations: 2(1/a + 1/b + 1/c) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = (5+4+3)/60 = 1/5. So 1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1/10. Therefore, 1/c = 1/10 - 1/12 = (6-5)/60 = 1/60, so c = 60. Similarly, 1/a = 1/10 - 1/15 = (3-2)/30 = 1/30, so a = 30.
मान लें A, B, C अकेले कार्य को क्रमशः a, b, c दिनों में पूरा करते हैं। दिए गए समीकरणों को जोड़ने पर: 2(1/a + 1/b + 1/c) = 1/5। अतः 1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1/10। इससे 1/a = 1/30, अतः A अकेले 30 दिन में कार्य पूरा करेगा।

Solving path: Let 1/a, 1/b, 1/c be individual rates. You have 1/a + 1/b = 1/12, 1/b + 1/c = 1/15, 1/c + 1/a = 1/20. Add all three: 2(1/a + 1/b + 1/c) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20. Find LCM(12,15,20) = 60. Sum = 5/60 + 4/60 + 3/60 = 12/60 = 1/5. So 1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1/10. Now 1/a = 1/10 - (1/b + 1/c) = 1/10 - 1/15 = 3/30 - 2/30 = 1/30. A alone takes 30 days.


Why this question: Markup + double discount is a classic SBI PO Prelims structure. The multiplier chain collapses this to one line.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
A shopkeeper marks up an article by 40% above cost price. He then gives successive discounts of 10% and 15% on the marked price. If his final selling price is ₹1071, what was the cost price of the article?
एक दुकानदार किसी वस्तु का मूल्य लागत मूल्य से 40% अधिक अंकित करता है। फिर वह अंकित मूल्य पर क्रमशः 10% और 15% की छूट देता है। यदि उसका अंतिम विक्रय मूल्य ₹1071 है, तो वस्तु का लागत मूल्य क्या था?
  1. ₹950
  2. ₹1000
  3. ₹1050
  4. ₹1100
  1. ₹950
  2. ₹1000
  3. ₹1050
  4. ₹1100
Solutionसमाधान
Let CP = x. MP = 1.4x. After 10% discount: 0.9 × 1.4x = 1.26x. After 15% discount: 0.85 × 1.26x = 1.071x. Given 1.071x = 1071, so x = 1000.
मान लें कि क्रय मूल्य = x। अंकित मूल्य = 1.4x। 10% छूट के बाद: 0.9 × 1.4x = 1.26x। 15% छूट के बाद: 0.85 × 1.26x = 1.071x। दिया गया 1.071x = 1071, अतः x = 1000।

Solving path: Let CP = x. MP = 1.4x. After 10% discount: 0.9 × 1.4x = 1.26x. After 15% discount: 0.85 × 1.26x = 1.071x. Given SP = 1071, so 1.071x = 1071, giving x = ₹1000. Note: you could also plug options. If CP = ₹1000, then SP = 1000 × 1.4 × 0.9 × 0.85 = 1071. Confirmed in under 20 seconds.


Why this question: Alligation on profit percentages — looks like algebra but alligation cross cuts it to two arithmetic operations.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:
एक व्यापारी के पास 1000 kg चीनी है, जिसका कुछ हिस्सा वह 8% लाभ पर और बाकी 18% लाभ पर बेचता है। पूरे सौदे पर उसे 14% का लाभ होता है। 18% लाभ पर बेची गई चीनी की मात्रा कितनी है?
  1. 400 kg
  2. 500 kg
  3. 600 kg
  4. 700 kg
  1. 400 kg
  2. 500 kg
  3. 600 kg
  4. 700 kg
Solutionसमाधान
Let x kg be sold at 18% profit and (1000-x) kg at 8% profit. Using alligation: 8% and 18% profits with average 14%. Difference from mean: |14-8| = 6 and |18-14| = 4. Ratio = 4:6 = 2:3. So quantity at 18% profit = 3/(2+3) × 1000 = 600 kg.
मान लें x kg चीनी 18% लाभ पर बेची गई। मिश्रण सूत्र से: 8% और 18% लाभ का औसत 14%। अनुपात 2:3। अतः 18% लाभ पर बेची गई मात्रा = 3/5 × 1000 = 600 kg।

Solving path: Two groups: one at 8% profit, one at 18% profit, blended at 14%. Alligation cross: difference from mean for 8% side = 14 - 8 = 6; for 18% side = 18 - 14 = 4. Ratio of (8%-group):(18%-group) = 4:6 = 2:3. Total = 5 parts = 1000 kg. 18%-group = (3/5) × 1000 = 600 kg.


Why this question: CI rate from consecutive year amounts — use the direct pattern, not the full formula.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to ₹4840 in 2 years and to ₹5324 in 3 years. What is the rate of interest per annum?
चक्रवृद्धि ब्याज पर लगाई गई कोई राशि 2 साल में ₹4840 और 3 साल में ₹5324 हो जाती है। प्रति वर्ष ब्याज दर क्या है?
  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%
  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%
Solutionसमाधान
Interest for the 3rd year = 5324 - 4840 = ₹484. This interest is on ₹4840 for 1 year. Rate = (484/4840) × 100 = 10%. We can verify: If P is principal and r = 10%, then P(1.1)² = 4840 and P(1.1)³ = 5324. From first equation: P = 4840/1.21 = 4000. Check: 4000(1.1)³ = 4000 × 1.331 = 5324. ✓
तीसरे वर्ष का ब्याज = 5324 - 4840 = ₹484। यह ब्याज ₹4840 पर 1 वर्ष का है। दर = (484/4840) × 100 = 10%। सत्यापन: मूलधन = 4000, 4000(1.1)² = 4840 और 4000(1.1)³ = 5324। ✓

Solving path: Amount in year 3 minus amount in year 2 = interest on year-2 amount for 1 year. Interest = 5324 - 4840 = ₹484. This is earned on principal of ₹4840. Rate = (484/4840) × 100 = 10%. Done in two arithmetic steps. Then verify: P × (1.1)² = 4840 gives P = 4840/1.21 = ₹4000, and 4000 × 1.331 = ₹5324. Consistent.


Why this question: Mixture ratio problem — fixed component trick avoids setting up two simultaneous equations.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
In a mixture of 80 liters, the ratio of milk to water is 7:1. How much water should be added to make the ratio of milk to water 7:3?
80 लीटर के एक मिश्रण में दूध और पानी का अनुपात 7:1 है। दूध और पानी का अनुपात 7:3 करने के लिए कितना पानी मिलाया जाए?
  1. 20 liters
  2. 30 liters
  3. 25 liters
  4. 15 liters
  1. 20 लीटर
  2. 30 लीटर
  3. 25 लीटर
  4. 15 लीटर
Solutionसमाधान
Initial milk = 70L, water = 10L. Let x liters of water be added. New ratio: 70:(10+x) = 7:3. Cross multiply: 70×3 = 7×(10+x). 210 = 70 + 7x. Therefore x = 20 liters.
प्रारंभिक दूध = 70L, पानी = 10L। माना x लीटर पानी मिलाया जाए। नया अनुपात: 70:(10+x) = 7:3। गुणा करने पर: 70×3 = 7×(10+x)। 210 = 70 + 7x। अतः x = 20 लीटर।

Solving path: Initial milk = (7/8) × 80 = 70 litres. Initial water = (1/8) × 80 = 10 litres. Adding x litres of water, milk stays at 70. New ratio: 70 : (10 + x) = 7 : 3. Cross multiply: 70 × 3 = 7 × (10 + x), so 210 = 70 + 7x, giving x = 20 litres.


Why this question: Pipes and cisterns with a leak — the leak rate is found by subtraction of the two known fill rates.

Previous Year Questionपिछले वर्ष का प्रश्न
A pipe can fill a tank in 12 hours. Due to a leak at the bottom, it takes 15 hours to fill the tank. In how many hours can the leak empty the full tank?
एक पाइप किसी टंकी को 12 घंटे में भर सकता है। तली में रिसाव होने के कारण टंकी भरने में 15 घंटे लग जाते हैं। रिसाव भरी हुई टंकी को कितने घंटों में खाली कर देगा?
  1. 60 hours
  2. 48 hours
  3. 36 hours
  4. 45 hours
  1. 60 घंटे
  2. 48 घंटे
  3. 36 घंटे
  4. 45 घंटे
Solutionसमाधान
Rate of filling = 1/12 tank/hour. Rate of filling with leak = 1/15 tank/hour. Rate of leakage = 1/12 - 1/15 = 5/60 - 4/60 = 1/60 tank/hour. Time to empty full tank = 60 hours.
भरने की दर = 1/12 टैंक/घंटा। रिसाव के साथ भरने की दर = 1/15 टैंक/घंटा। रिसाव की दर = 1/12 - 1/15 = 1/60 टैंक/घंटा। पूरा टैंक खाली करने का समय = 60 घंटे।

Solving path: Fill rate without leak = 1/12 tank/hour. Fill rate with leak = 1/15 tank/hour. Leak rate = 1/12 - 1/15 = 5/60 - 4/60 = 1/60 tank/hour. Time for leak to empty full tank = 60 hours.


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